Does anyone have any good commentary on the passage where Jesus calls the woman a “dog”? That part has always troubled me.
It shows up in Matthew 15 and Mark 7, but not Luke. Luke was written for a primarily Gentile community whereas Matthew and Mark were written for a mostly Jewish and mixed community respectively. My guess would be that it reflects a view that Israel is God’s chosen, and preferred, community, and that the passage is an attempt to explain why Gentiles are allowed in while still preserving the primacy of Israel.
More generally, the Gospels reflect a mixture of oral traditions, oral histories, theologies, and commentaries. They are not biographical in the modern sense. In other words, don’t assume that the story is reflective on an actual event in Jesus’ life (and likewise, don’t assume it isn’t).