Do you think Kronos forced Rhea to have sex with him at some point?
Given the lack of details when it comes to their relationship, it is kind of impossible to say anything for sure. However, at one point during the Theogony Hesiod describes Rhea as tamed/subjected/subdued (δμηθεῖσα) by Kronos, the same verb used in the poem to describe Thetis' marriage with Peleus (which is a forced one in the overwhelming majority of sources) and of Medea with Jason (again a union arranged by the gods), as well as Zeus and Herakles overpowering their adversaries.
Now maybe it is a bit of a stretch to assume that this must have involved rape given that the idea of maidens being tamed by men through marriage/sexual union was a common metaphor in ancient Greek literature, but Hesiod uses this expression quite sparingly when describing the matings of gods and other beings so perhaps it does say something about the nature of the relationship.
Regarding the use of δάμνημι in the Theogony, Evelien Bracke says: "My suggestion is that when Hesiod uses this verb in reference to women, the verb is not just an established metaphor that denotes marriage but retains its original force of taming, subduing and subjecting. The actions of gods and men subjecting goddesses and women are seen to be in exact parallel with the actions of gods and men who overcome their opponents in other contexts. Eros, for example, subjects (δάμναται, 120-122) the minds of gods and men, Heracles overcomes (ἐδάμασσε, 330-332) the Nemean lion, and Zeus overpowers both Cronus (δαμῆναι, 463-465) and Typhoeus (δάμασεν, 857-858). The verb is here used to denote the violent conquest of opponents." (Narrative Manipulation of Medea and Metis in Hesiod's Theogony)
And Rebecca Symonds states the following: "His [Kronos's} violent streak manifests again in his union with Rhea who is ‘overpowered’ by him: Ῥείη δὲ δμηθεῖσα Κρόνῳ τέκε φαίδιμα τέκνα. 308 The use of the term ‘overpowered’ is significant. Whilst there is no rigid definition of a sexual assault within ancient Greek culture there is an understanding that violence or force can be used to overpower a woman and that this is not a positive use of strength. The only other male figures who overpower their wives within the Theogony are Hyperion, Orthos and Peleus. Whilst it cannot be ignored that different cultures have different attitudes regarding issues of consent, the context of these situations demonstrates that the use of overpowering force is not viewed positively. The union of Peleus and Thetis is an infamously unhappy one, as the goddess, resenting her marriage to a mortal and the grief it will cause her, resides in the ocean away from her husband. Orthos is described as the dog child of Echidna and Typhon who mates with his equally monstrous sister Chimaira to produce both the Sphynx and the Nemean Lion. The offspring of this union are devastating to humanity until they are eventually defeated by heroes. The one exemption to this would seem to be Hyperion who overpowers Theia in love, which could imply a less violent nature to his advances. This small but important distinction is missing in Kronos’ advances on Rhea. The male figures who are associated with ‘overpowering’ their partners are few in number and the instances that they describe can be predominantly characterised as negative. The limited number of figures suggests that this is a term being used in a specific context and carries a meaning deeper than simply an alternative linguistic choice." (The Power Dynamics of the Family of the Gods in Archaic Verse)
But to demonstrate how futile is to try to definitively find the presence or absence of consent in most sexual encounters in ancient Greek literature where no further context is provided (and especially in a work like Hesiod's in which consent to sex or lack thereof is very much not the point), elsewhere in the Theogony the word used to describe Kronos and Rhea's mating is philotes, like so many other unions in the poem: ἀλλά σφεας Κρονίδης τε καὶ ἀθάνατοι θεοὶ ἄλλοι, οὓς τέκεν ἠύκομος Ῥείη Κρόνου ἐν φιλότητι "But the son of Kronos and the other immortal gods, those whom fair-haired Rhea bore in union (philotes) with Kronos" (Hes. Theog. 624-5). You might encounter the idea that a union in philotes implies consent, reciprocity, tenderness and what not, but I'd say that it is highly debatable and we know from instances like Poseidon and Tyro in the Odyssey or Zeus and Nemesis in the Kypria that two people can be joined in philotes through trickery or even force, and from the sex scene between Zeus and Hera in Iliad 14 that philotes need not necessarily be brought about through mutual desire and genuine affection. This post is already too long as it is, so I'll just link to this passage that discusses the concept of philotes in a little more detail.
I feel like I rambled a lot without properly answering the question (this is kind of my thing I guess) and I'm sorry for that, but this is a complicated topic and the truth is that I don't have a proper answer. Let's just say that I think it's possible that he did and I wouldn't find it unreasonable in the slightest for someone to use an interpretation like this. It would make perfect sense to me for a mother who has seen her child(ren) devoured by her partner to be unwilling to bring more children into the world knowing that they will be subjected to the same fate.