I've been trying to think of a less harsh way to put it, but every time I see an ostensible expert say that Mr Bennet and Darcy have the same social position and the only difference between them is that Darcy has more money, it's like ... um, either this person doesn't know what they're talking about or assumes their audience is so unsophisticated and ignorant that they can't handle the slightest degree of nuance.
Yes, it's obvious why this always comes up with P&P specifically, and explaining all the many differences and gradations in socioeconomic hierarchies between then and now is a steep task and not always necessary or useful. But Darcy and Mr Bennet are both untitled hereditary landowners. This means they have the same rank, yes—the technicality Elizabeth uses with Lady Catherine—but it also means that their status, incomes, reach of influence, and general consequence in their world are going to be primarily based on their inherited land, not that all these things except income would be functionally identical in their social world.
Awhile ago, I quoted a fairly concise description of England's class system at the time by the historian Dorothy Marshall, made decades ago, but—unusually—managing to convey some of the RL complexity around social position without belaboring the point too much. One of the most critical points she makes is this:
In spite of the number of people who got their living from manufacture or trade, fundamentally it was a society in which the ownership of land alone conveyed social prestige and full political rights.
The difference between someone like Mr Bennet and someone like Darcy in terms of socioeconomic power and status (often termed "consequence" at the time) is inevitably going to be more about hereditary land ownership than any other factor, including incomes and connections. Their incomes provide important information about the scale and value of the land they own, but wealth alone only tells a portion of the story here.
It's really, really clear in the novel that Mr. Bennet and Mr. Darcy are on different levels. I cannot understand why someone would even try to smooth over that nuance.
This is excellent clarification! Also remember that Darcy’s aunt is a lady. She’s a lady by marriage but that connection to a title alone elevates him in the hierarchy of the time.
Thanks!
Just to be clear, Lady Catherine is a lady by birth, not marriage, like her sister, Lady Anne Darcy—Darcy's own mother. Lady Catherine's title would be Lady de Bourgh if it came from her husband, Sir Lewis de Bourgh. Her own status, however, supersedes any title a mere knight or baronet could give her—Lady Catherine and Lady Anne were the daughters of an earl, a high-ranking nobleman.
This certainly affects Darcy's social status, though I think it's sometimes a bit overstated in terms of where Darcy's prestige comes from. A lot of his status comes from the scale of inherited land the Darcys control and the power it represents (we are told that basically his entire income is generated by Pemberley, not a smaller genteel estate + a separate inheritance, as we see with more typical wealthy gentry in other novels). Darcy isn't literally a nobleman, but Pemberley is aristocratic in scale and the Darcys are the kind of family who would have close blood relatives in the higher echelons of the nobility, as he does.
That's really unusual for an Austen hero, or really any Austen character who's portrayed at all favorably. The very powerful landowners and those with close associations or alignments with them tend not to come out looking good in her work, but P&P is so central to so much of the general sense of what Austen is doing as a writer that I think it's easy to overlook how much of Austen's relatively sympathetic depiction of Darcy is unique to him personally.
(@bethanydelleman - thanks as well. I also don't get it, but it's seemed increasingly common in the last 10-15 years from public-facing scholars who should and, I think, do know better.)